Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 06:03
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Injuries force USMNT to make roster changes as the Gold Cup nears - The Washington Post
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Scientists capture slow-motion earthquake in action - Phys.org
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.